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Free USMLE Step 2 CK Endocrinology and Diabetes practice questions
8 original exam-style questions from the StepStash 2,500-question Step 2 CK qbank, each with a full explanation, an educational objective and a link to the matching study note. Try each one before you open the answer. Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy.
A 46-year-old woman comes to the office because of diffuse, aching pain in her lower back, pelvis, ribs and legs and progressive difficulty rising from a chair for 1 year. She was told she might have fibromyalgia. She rarely leaves her apartment because of severe agoraphobia, wears long-sleeved clothing when she does, and avoids dairy products. She takes sertraline. She walks with a broad-based, waddling gait. Pressure over the sternum and anterior tibias is painful, and hip flexor strength is 4/5 bilaterally; reflexes are normal. Serum calcium is 8.5 mg/dL, phosphorus 2.1 mg/dL (2.5 to 4.5), alkaline phosphatase 310 U/L (40 to 120), creatine kinase 80 U/L (normal) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate 12 mm/h. A pelvic radiograph shows bilateral, symmetric, narrow radiolucent bands running perpendicular to the cortex of the superior pubic rami.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Fibromyalgia
Polymyalgia rheumatica
Osteomalacia
Polymyositis
Primary osteoporosis
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Osteomalacia
This woman has osteomalacia, almost certainly from vitamin D deficiency due to minimal sun exposure and low dietary intake. The classic features are diffuse bone pain and tenderness (elicited by pressing on the sternum or tibias), proximal muscle weakness with a waddling gait, and laboratory evidence of a mineralization defect: low-normal calcium, low phosphate and high alkaline phosphatase. The radiographic finding is diagnostic: Looser zones (pseudofractures), narrow radiolucent bands perpendicular to the cortex, typically at the pubic rami, femoral neck, ribs and lateral scapula. The next tests are 25-hydroxyvitamin D (expected below 20, often below 10 ng/mL) and PTH (expected high), followed by vitamin D and calcium repletion. Osteomalacia is often mislabeled as fibromyalgia or polymyalgia, delaying treatment for years.
A. Fibromyalgia causes widespread pain with tender points, but strength, gait, laboratory values and radiographs are normal; low phosphate, high alkaline phosphatase and pseudofractures exclude it. B. Polymyalgia rheumatica occurs after age 50 with shoulder and hip girdle stiffness and a high ESR or CRP; her ESR is normal and bone tenderness is not a feature. D. Polymyositis causes proximal weakness with an elevated creatine kinase and no bone pain; her CK is normal. E. Primary osteoporosis is painless until a fracture occurs and has normal calcium, phosphate and alkaline phosphatase; it does not cause Looser zones.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that diffuse bone pain, proximal weakness with a waddling gait, low phosphate, high alkaline phosphatase and Looser zones indicate osteomalacia, which is often mistaken for fibromyalgia.
Osteoporosis is too little bone with normal labs, and DXA cannot tell it from osteomalacia; osteomalacia is too little mineral: low vitamin D triggers secondary hyperparathyroidism, which holds calcium low or low-normal but wastes phosphate, and ALP rises.
A 34-year-old woman who works as a nurse on an endocrinology unit is admitted after two episodes of confusion, sweating and tremor at work, each with a fingerstick glucose below 45 mg/dL that resolved with oral glucose. She does not have diabetes and takes no medications. Her father has type 1 diabetes. She appears well. BMI is 23 kg/m2 and the physical examination is normal. During a third witnessed episode on the ward, a critical sample is drawn:
Plasma glucose
36 mg/dL
Insulin
68 microU/mL (N <3 during hypoglycemia)
C-peptide
0.1 ng/mL (N >0.6 during hypoglycemia)
Proinsulin
<2 pmol/L (N <5)
beta-hydroxybutyrate
0.1 mmol/L (insulin-mediated if 2.7 or less)
A sulfonylurea and meglitinide screen is negative.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hypoglycemia?
Insulinoma
Exogenous insulin administration
Surreptitious glipizide ingestion
Adrenal insufficiency
Non-islet cell tumor secreting IGF-2
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Exogenous insulin administration
The Whipple triad is met: neuroglycopenic and adrenergic symptoms, a documented plasma glucose of 36 mg/dL, and relief with glucose. The critical sample shows inappropriately high insulin with low beta-hydroxybutyrate, confirming insulin-mediated hypoglycemia (insulin suppresses ketogenesis). The decisive finding is a suppressed C-peptide and proinsulin. Endogenous insulin is cleaved from proinsulin with equimolar C-peptide, whereas pharmaceutical insulin contains no C-peptide and suppresses the patient's own beta cells. High insulin with low C-peptide therefore indicates injected insulin, that is, factitious (or malicious) hypoglycemia. A healthcare worker with access to insulin and a family member with diabetes is a classic setting.
The next steps are a nonjudgmental conversation, consideration of factitious disorder and psychiatric referral, and, if she denies it, consideration of whether someone else could be administering insulin.
A. Insulinoma raises insulin, C-peptide and proinsulin together; a suppressed C-peptide excludes endogenous hyperinsulinism. C. A sulfonylurea such as glipizide also stimulates endogenous secretion and raises C-peptide and proinsulin, and the drug screen is negative. D. Adrenal insufficiency causes non-insulin-mediated hypoglycemia with suppressed insulin and elevated ketones. E. A big IGF-2-secreting tumor activates the insulin receptor while suppressing insulin, C-peptide and ketones; measured insulin would be low, not high.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that hypoglycemia with high insulin and suppressed C-peptide and proinsulin indicates exogenous insulin administration.
Insulin first, then C-peptide: injected insulin carries no C-peptide, while a secretagogue and an insulinoma both raise it, so only the drug screen tells those two apart; with suppressed insulin, ketones separate an IGF-2-secreting tumor from non-insulin-mediated causes.
A 32-year-old man comes to the office because he and his 30-year-old wife have been unable to conceive after 18 months of regular unprotected intercourse; her evaluation has been normal. He has normal erections and ejaculation, takes no medications or supplements, and has never used testosterone. He has had mild chronic sinusitis but no lung disease. He is 178 cm tall, with normal body hair and no gynecomastia. Both testes are 20 mL and firm, and the vasa deferentia cannot be palpated on either side. Two semen analyses 4 weeks apart show the following:
Parameter
Result
Reference
Volume
0.7 mL
1.4 mL or more
pH
6.5
7.2 or more
Sperm after centrifugation
None
Present
Fructose
Absent
Present
Serum FSH, LH, and testosterone levels are normal. A urinalysis after ejaculation shows no sperm.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Klinefelter syndrome
Retrograde ejaculation
Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens
Kallmann syndrome
Exogenous androgen use
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens
This man has azoospermia with a low-volume, acidic, fructose-negative ejaculate, normal-size testes, normal gonadotropins and testosterone, and nonpalpable vasa deferentia. Normal testes with a normal FSH indicate intact spermatogenesis, so the azoospermia is obstructive. The seminal vesicles, which arise with the vas from the mesonephric duct, normally supply most of the alkaline, fructose-rich ejaculate; when they are absent or hypoplastic, only the small, acidic prostatic fraction remains. This pattern is congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens, which is a genital form of cystic fibrosis: most affected men carry CFTR mutations, often without lung disease, although sinus disease is common. Both he and his wife should have CFTR testing and genetic counseling before sperm retrieval with in vitro fertilization and intracytoplasmic sperm injection, and renal ultrasound is advised because unilateral renal agenesis can accompany vasal agenesis.
A. Klinefelter syndrome causes small, firm testes (often less than 4 mL), high FSH and LH, and low testosterone, typically with a normal ejaculate volume. B. Retrograde ejaculation produces a low-volume ejaculate, but sperm would appear in the postejaculatory urine, and the vasa would be palpable. D. Kallmann syndrome is hypogonadotropic hypogonadism with anosmia and delayed puberty; his gonadotropins, testosterone, and virilization are normal. E. Exogenous androgens suppress LH and FSH and shrink the testes, and he denies any use.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that azoospermia with low-volume acidic ejaculate, normal testes and FSH, and nonpalpable vasa indicates congenital bilateral absence of the vas deferens, which calls for CFTR testing of both partners.
IUI with letrozole or clomiphene is the first step for mild male factor or unexplained infertility (tubes must be open); IVF bypasses the tubes (tubal factor, unexplained infertility when IUI fails; remove a hydrosalpinx first); ICSI injects one sperm per egg for severe male factor, including sperm retrieved in Klinefelter or absent vas. Watch for OHSS after an hCG trigger in PCOS.
A 63-year-old woman comes to the office because of 2 months of palpitations, heat intolerance, and a 4-kg (8.8-lb) weight loss despite a good appetite. She takes no medications or supplements and has not had recent imaging with contrast. Pulse is 112/min and regular, and blood pressure is 138/70 mm Hg. She has a fine tremor of the outstretched hands and warm, moist skin. A firm, 3-cm nodule is palpable in the right thyroid lobe; the rest of the gland is not palpable. There is no proptosis. Laboratory results from 1 week ago show TSH less than 0.01 mIU/L (0.4 to 4.5) and free T4 1.6 ng/dL (0.8 to 1.8). Today, total T3 is 310 ng/dL (80 to 180).
Which of the following best describes this patient's thyroid status?
T3 toxicosis
Subclinical hyperthyroidism
Nonthyroidal illness
Euthyroid state with thyroid nodule
Central hyperthyroidism
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. T3 toxicosis
A suppressed TSH with a normal free T4 is often labeled subclinical hyperthyroidism, but that label applies only when T3 is also normal. This woman has an elevated total T3 and clear clinical thyrotoxicosis (tachycardia, tremor, weight loss with good appetite, heat intolerance), so she has overt T3 toxicosis. Autonomous thyroid tissue, especially a toxic adenoma or toxic multinodular goiter, and early Graves disease preferentially secrete T3, so T3 can rise before free T4 does. The solitary palpable nodule with the rest of the gland impalpable in a woman in her 60s strongly suggests a toxic adenoma, which a radioiodine scan would show as a single hot nodule with suppression of the remaining gland. This is why guidelines advise measuring T3 whenever TSH is low and free T4 is normal.
The distinction matters: overt hyperthyroidism, including T3 toxicosis, warrants beta-blockade now and definitive treatment (radioiodine or surgery for a toxic adenoma), whereas true subclinical disease is often just repeated in 6 to 12 weeks and treated selectively.
B. Subclinical hyperthyroidism requires normal free T4 and normal T3 and usually produces few symptoms. C. Nonthyroidal illness lowers T3 rather than raising it, and she is not acutely ill. D. A euthyroid state is excluded by the suppressed TSH, high T3, and symptoms. E. "Central hyperthyroidism" (a TSH-secreting adenoma) presents with high thyroid hormone and a nonsuppressed TSH; her TSH is undetectable, which places the problem in the thyroid.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that a low TSH with a normal free T4 is subclinical hyperthyroidism only if T3 is also normal; an elevated T3 is T3 toxicosis, typical of toxic nodules and early Graves disease.
Repeat abnormal TSH with normal free T4 in 6 to 12 weeks before acting. Levothyroxine for TSH 10 or higher on repeat, and without delay in pregnancy or when trying to conceive; between the upper limit and 10, consider only in younger adults with symptoms or antibodies. For low TSH, check T3, exclude over-replacement and other causes, and treat persistent disease (usually radioiodine) when TSH is below 0.1 with age 65 or older, heart disease, osteoporosis or symptoms.
Question 5 · SGLT2 inhibitor adverse effects · medium
A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes underwent an uncomplicated laparoscopic sigmoid colectomy for recurrent diverticulitis 2 days ago. His home medications are metformin and empagliflozin; empagliflozin was taken until the day before surgery. He has had little oral intake since the operation and now reports nausea, malaise and abdominal discomfort. Temperature is 37.2 C (99.0 F), pulse is 106/min, respirations are 26/min and blood pressure is 118/72 mm Hg. The abdomen is mildly tender around the port sites without guarding. Laboratory studies show:
Glucose
188 mg/dL
Sodium
137 mEq/L
Potassium
4.4 mEq/L
Chloride
104 mEq/L
Bicarbonate
11 mEq/L
Creatinine
1.0 mg/dL
Lactate
1.3 mmol/L (N 0.5 to 2.2)
beta-hydroxybutyrate
5.6 mmol/L (N <0.4)
Venous pH is 7.18. Empagliflozin and metformin are stopped, and IV balanced crystalloid is started.
Which of the following is the most appropriate additional treatment?
Subcutaneous correction-scale insulin only when glucose exceeds 250 mg/dL
Intravenous sodium bicarbonate infusion
Intravenous insulin infusion with dextrose-containing fluids
Intravenous fluids alone until glucose exceeds 250 mg/dL
Exploratory laparotomy for anastomotic leak
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Intravenous insulin infusion with dextrose-containing fluids
This patient has euglycemic diabetic ketoacidosis associated with an SGLT2 inhibitor: an anion-gap metabolic acidosis (gap 22, bicarbonate 11 mEq/L, pH 7.18) with markedly elevated beta-hydroxybutyrate but a glucose below 250 mg/dL. Empagliflozin was continued up to the day before surgery instead of being held for 3 days, and postoperative fasting and surgical stress lowered insulin and raised counterregulatory hormones. SGLT2 inhibitors keep glucose modest by urinary glucose loss while promoting lipolysis and ketogenesis, so the near-normal glucose falsely reassures. Normal lactate makes lactic acidosis unlikely, and the mild port-site tenderness without fever or guarding does not suggest a surgical complication.
Treatment follows DKA principles with one modification. Ketoacidosis resolves only when insulin suppresses lipolysis and ketogenesis, so a continuous IV insulin infusion is required even though glucose is not very high. Because the glucose is already below 250 mg/dL, dextrose-containing fluids (5% to 10%) are given from the start so that enough insulin can be infused without causing hypoglycemia. Fluids and potassium are managed as in other DKA, ketones and the anion gap are followed, and the SGLT2 inhibitor is not restarted until he is eating normally and the acidosis has resolved, if at all.
A. Correction insulin given only for hyperglycemia would rarely be triggered at this glucose and would leave ketogenesis unchecked. B. Bicarbonate is not indicated at a pH above 7.0 and does not stop ketone production. D. Withholding insulin until glucose rises misreads the disorder; the problem is ketoacidosis, not hyperglycemia, and the glucose may never exceed 250 mg/dL. E. An anastomotic leak would cause fever, peritonitis and a lactic or septic picture; this acidosis is ketotic, with normal lactate, so surgery is not indicated.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that SGLT2 inhibitor-associated euglycemic DKA is treated with an IV insulin infusion plus dextrose-containing fluids, because insulin, not glucose lowering, is what resolves the ketoacidosis.
A near-normal glucose does not exclude DKA on an SGLT2 inhibitor: check ketones and the anion gap in any ill or fasting patient. Treat euglycemic DKA with insulin plus dextrose, and hold the drug during acute illness and 3 to 4 days before surgery.
A 44-year-old woman comes to the clinic because of 2 months of fatigue, thirst, frequent urination, and a dry cough. She takes no medications or supplements and has had more sun exposure than usual this summer. Blood pressure is 124/78 mm Hg. Chest x-ray shows bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy, and endobronchial ultrasound-guided biopsy of a mediastinal node shows noncaseating granulomas with negative stains and cultures for mycobacteria and fungi. Serum calcium is 12.2 mg/dL (reference 8.6 to 10.2 mg/dL), phosphate is 4.3 mg/dL, intact PTH is 7 pg/mL (reference 10 to 65 pg/mL), 25-hydroxyvitamin D is 24 ng/mL, 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D is 104 pg/mL (reference 18 to 78 pg/mL), and creatinine is 1.3 mg/dL (baseline 0.8 mg/dL). After 2 days of oral fluids her calcium is 11.9 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy to control her hypercalcemia?
Prednisone
Cinacalcet
Hydrochlorothiazide
Ergocalciferol
Calcitonin
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Prednisone
Hypercalcemia with a suppressed PTH, a high-normal phosphate, a normal 25-hydroxyvitamin D, and an elevated 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D points to unregulated calcitriol production. Activated macrophages in granulomas express 1-alpha-hydroxylase that is not controlled by PTH or calcium, so they convert 25-hydroxyvitamin D to calcitriol, which increases intestinal calcium absorption and bone resorption. Her hilar adenopathy, cough, and noncaseating granulomas with negative cultures establish sarcoidosis, and sun exposure (more vitamin D substrate) often unmasks it. Her calcium is above 12 mg/dL with polyuria and a rise in creatinine, so it needs treatment beyond hydration. Glucocorticoids are the treatment of choice: they inhibit macrophage 1-alpha-hydroxylase and lower calcitriol, and calcium usually falls within 3 to 5 days. A moderate prednisone dose is given and tapered by response. She should also avoid vitamin D supplements and excess sun exposure, keep calcium intake moderate, and be monitored for nephrocalcinosis. Hydroxychloroquine or ketoconazole are alternatives when glucocorticoids cannot be used.
B. Cinacalcet lowers PTH secretion from parathyroid tissue; her PTH is already suppressed, so it has no target here.
C. Thiazides reduce urinary calcium excretion and would raise her serum calcium further.
D. Ergocalciferol supplies more substrate for granuloma calcitriol production and would worsen the hypercalcemia.
E. Calcitonin lowers calcium for only about 48 hours before tachyphylaxis; it is a bridge in severe hypercalcemia, not a means of control.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that hypercalcemia from granulomatous disease such as sarcoidosis has low PTH and high 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D and is treated with glucocorticoids, which suppress macrophage calcitriol production.
Ask first whether PTH fits the calcium: teal means the glands are obeying and the cause lies elsewhere, rose means PTH secretion itself is abnormal (with high calcium, even a normal PTH is inappropriate); then phosphate points to the kidney.
A 68-year-old woman comes to the office because of 3 months of palpitations, fatigue, and a 3-kg (6.6-lb) weight loss. She grew up in a mountainous, iodine-deficient region abroad and has had a "lumpy neck" for many years. She takes no medications or supplements and has had no recent CT scans with contrast. Pulse is 104/min and irregularly irregular, and blood pressure is 136/78 mm Hg. The thyroid is enlarged and multinodular, with several firm nodules from 1 to 2.5 cm and no tenderness. There is no stridor, proptosis, or lid retraction. ECG shows atrial fibrillation. TSH is less than 0.01 mIU/L (0.4 to 4.5), free T4 is 2.1 ng/dL (0.8 to 1.8), and total T3 is 240 ng/dL (80 to 180). Metoprolol and apixaban are started.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step to determine the cause of her thyrotoxicosis?
Fine-needle aspiration of the largest nodule
CT scan of the neck with contrast
Anti-thyroid peroxidase antibody measurement
Serum thyroglobulin measurement
Radioiodine uptake and thyroid scan
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: E. Radioiodine uptake and thyroid scan
This older woman from an iodine-deficient region has long-standing nodular goiter and new thyrotoxicosis with atrial fibrillation, a classic setting for toxic multinodular goiter. When the gland is nodular, TSH-receptor antibodies alone cannot define the cause, and the 2016 ATA guideline recommends a radioactive iodine uptake with a thyroid scan. The scan shows patchy areas of increased uptake (autonomous nodules) alternating with suppressed or cold areas in toxic multinodular goiter, a single hot nodule with suppressed background in a toxic adenoma, and diffuse uptake in Graves disease. The scan also maps which nodules are hyperfunctioning, which are rarely malignant and need no biopsy, and which are cold, which should then be evaluated with ultrasound and FNA if they meet size and sonographic criteria. The uptake value guides radioiodine dosing, the usual definitive therapy for toxic multinodular goiter without compressive symptoms.
A. FNA before the scan is the wrong order; biopsy of a hot nodule is unnecessary and its cytology often looks indeterminate. B. CT with iodinated contrast does not determine function, and the iodine load would block radioiodine uptake for weeks, delay definitive therapy, and could worsen her thyrotoxicosis through the Jod-Basedow effect in autonomous nodules. C. TPO antibodies indicate thyroid autoimmunity but are present in both Graves disease and Hashimoto thyroiditis and in many healthy people, so they do not localize the source of hormone. D. Thyroglobulin is useful when uptake is low, to separate thyroiditis from exogenous hormone, but it is elevated in nodular goiter and does not distinguish among overproducing glands.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that thyrotoxicosis with a nodular gland is evaluated with a radioiodine uptake and scan, which identifies toxic multinodular goiter or toxic adenoma and maps which nodules need biopsy.
TRAb first unless Graves is obvious; if TRAb is negative or the picture is atypical, radioiodine uptake: high means an overproducing gland (Graves diffuse, toxic multinodular goiter patchy, toxic adenoma one hot nodule); low is sorted by thyroglobulin (high in thyroiditis, low with exogenous hormone), urine iodine and pelvic uptake. No radioiodine in pregnancy or lactation.
Question 8 · Fasting Hyperglycemia on Insulin · hard
A 58-year-old man with type 2 diabetes comes to the office because his morning glucose readings have been high. He takes metformin and NPH insulin 24 units before dinner. Over the past 2 months his fasting fingerstick glucose has ranged from 190 to 240 mg/dL, while pre-lunch and pre-dinner values are 120 to 150 mg/dL. His wife says he sometimes wakes drenched in sweat and has had vivid nightmares, and he often wakes with a headache. He has not changed his diet. BMI is 30 kg/m2. HbA1c is 7.3%. He asks whether his evening insulin dose should be increased.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in evaluation?
Measure fasting serum C-peptide
Measure HbA1c again in 3 months
Obtain a 75-g oral glucose tolerance test
Measure fructosamine
Check fingerstick glucose at 3 AM for several nights
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: E. Check fingerstick glucose at 3 AM for several nights
High fasting glucose in a patient taking evening insulin has three main explanations: the dawn phenomenon (early-morning growth hormone, cortisol and catecholamine surges raising hepatic glucose output), waning insulin before morning, and the Somogyi effect (nocturnal hypoglycemia from excess evening insulin followed by counterregulatory rebound). The treatments are opposite: the first two call for more or later evening basal insulin, whereas the Somogyi effect calls for less. Raising the dose in a patient with nocturnal lows deepens the hypoglycemia.
His clues point toward nocturnal hypoglycemia: night sweats, nightmares and morning headaches, with a predinner NPH dose that peaks at 4 to 10 hours, right in the middle of the night. His HbA1c of 7.3% is also lower than his fasting values would suggest. Before any dose change, overnight glucose must be measured: a 3 AM fingerstick on several nights (or a continuous glucose monitor tracing) separates the patterns. A low 3 AM value means reducing the evening NPH, moving it to bedtime or switching to a basal analog with less nocturnal hypoglycemia; a normal or high value supports the dawn phenomenon or waning insulin.
A. C-peptide measures residual beta-cell function and does not explain the timing of hyperglycemia. B. Repeating HbA1c gives an average and cannot reveal nocturnal lows. C. An OGTT is a diagnostic test for diabetes, which he already has. D. Fructosamine is a 2- to 3-week average of glycemia, useful when HbA1c is unreliable, and also cannot detect nocturnal hypoglycemia.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that fasting hyperglycemia on evening insulin, especially with night sweats or nightmares, is evaluated with a 3 AM glucose or CGM before the dose is changed.
Rapid-acting insulin peaks at 1 to 2 h and is gone by 3 to 5 h and regular by 5 to 8 h, while NPH peaks broadly at 4 to 10 h, so an evening dose peaks overnight and causes lows; glargine, detemir and degludec stay nearly flat, and basal analogs cause less nocturnal hypoglycemia than NPH.