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Free USMLE Step 2 CK Cardiology practice questions
8 original exam-style questions from the StepStash 2,500-question Step 2 CK qbank, each with a full explanation, an educational objective and a link to the matching study note. Try each one before you open the answer. Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy.
A 58-year-old man comes to the office because of a pounding sensation in his chest when he lies on his left side and mild exertional dyspnea for 1 year. He has long-standing hypertension treated with amlodipine. Blood pressure is 168/46 mm Hg in both arms and pulse is 84/min and regular. His head moves slightly with each heartbeat, and gentle pressure on a fingernail shows pulsations of the nail bed. The carotid pulses are bounding with a rapid upstroke and collapse. The apical impulse is diffuse and displaced to the left anterior axillary line. A grade 2/6 high-pitched decrescendo diastolic murmur beginning immediately after S2 is heard along the left sternal border and is loudest with the patient sitting up, leaning forward and holding his breath in expiration. A low-pitched mid-diastolic rumble is also heard at the apex.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Mitral stenosis
Patent ductus arteriosus
Pulmonic regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation
Aortic stenosis
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Aortic regurgitation
This man has chronic aortic regurgitation. The murmur is an early diastolic, high-pitched decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border, accentuated by sitting forward in end-expiration. Chronic volume overload produces a large stroke volume ejected into a leaky aorta, causing a wide pulse pressure (here 122 mm Hg) and the peripheral signs that follow from it: bounding water-hammer (Corrigan) pulses, head bobbing (de Musset sign) and nail-bed pulsations (Quincke sign). The dilated, eccentric hypertrophied ventricle displaces the apical impulse laterally. The apical mid-diastolic rumble is the Austin Flint murmur, caused by the regurgitant jet striking the anterior mitral leaflet and producing functional mitral obstruction. Echocardiography should follow to quantify severity and measure LV ejection fraction and end-systolic dimension, which guide timing of surgery.
A. Mitral stenosis causes an apical diastolic rumble, but it follows an opening snap, is accompanied by a loud S1, and does not produce a wide pulse pressure or bounding pulses; the rumble here is an Austin Flint murmur.
B. Patent ductus arteriosus can widen the pulse pressure, but its murmur is continuous and machinelike at the left infraclavicular area, not purely diastolic.
C. Pulmonic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur at the left upper sternal border that increases with inspiration and is usually due to pulmonary hypertension; it does not cause peripheral signs of wide pulse pressure.
E. Aortic stenosis produces a systolic crescendo-decrescendo murmur and a narrow pulse pressure with a weak, delayed carotid upstroke.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that an early diastolic decrescendo murmur at the left sternal border with a wide pulse pressure, bounding pulses and an apical Austin Flint rumble indicates chronic aortic regurgitation.
Timing and shape sort the murmurs: AS, MR and MVP sit in systole; AR starts at S2 and MS follows an opening snap in diastole.
A 71-year-old woman is on postoperative day 5 after an open reduction and internal fixation of a hip fracture. She has been mostly bedbound, and her prophylactic enoxaparin was held for 2 days because of wound oozing. While walking to the bathroom with a physical therapist, she suddenly becomes short of breath and then unresponsive. No pulse is palpable, but the monitor shows a narrow-complex sinus tachycardia at 128/min. CPR is started. Her neck veins are markedly distended, breath sounds are equal and clear bilaterally, and the trachea is midline. A brief bedside ultrasound during a pulse check shows a dilated right ventricle that bows the septum into a small left ventricle, with no pericardial effusion.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's arrest?
Cardiac tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
Massive pulmonary embolism
Hypovolemia from occult hemorrhage
Acute myocardial infarction
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: C. Massive pulmonary embolism
This is pulseless electrical activity (PEA), and the bedside clues point to massive pulmonary embolism: recent orthopedic surgery with immobilization and held prophylaxis, sudden dyspnea before collapse, distended neck veins with clear, equal breath sounds, and ultrasound showing an acutely dilated right ventricle with septal shift and an underfilled left ventricle and no effusion. In PEA the cause is the treatment; for suspected or confirmed PE during arrest, systemic thrombolysis is reasonable (with CPR continued for 60 to 90 minutes after the lytic is given), and surgical or catheter embolectomy are options in experienced centers.
A. Cardiac tamponade also causes PEA with distended neck veins, but the ultrasound shows no pericardial effusion; tamponade typically follows cardiac surgery, trauma, malignancy, or dissection.
B. Tension pneumothorax causes distended neck veins with absent breath sounds on one side and tracheal deviation; her breath sounds are equal and the trachea is midline.
D. Hypovolemia from hemorrhage causes PEA with flat neck veins and a small, hyperdynamic or empty heart on ultrasound, the opposite of these findings.
E. Acute myocardial infarction more often presents with chest pain and VF or a regional wall motion abnormality of the left ventricle; isolated right ventricular dilation with clear lungs after immobilization points to PE.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that PEA with distended neck veins, clear lungs, and a dilated right ventricle without effusion after immobilization indicates massive pulmonary embolism, which is treated with thrombolysis.
In PEA the cause is the treatment: the neck veins and chest separate tamponade, tension pneumothorax, massive PE and hypovolemia, and the history or ECG points to the other H's and T's; bedside ultrasound can show tamponade, an empty ventricle or a dilated right ventricle.
A 66-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up after a carotid duplex study ordered because a left supraclavicular bruit was heard at his annual examination. He has no dizziness, syncope, visual changes, or arm fatigue, even when he works overhead in his garden for hours. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension and has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 40 years. Medications are metformin and lisinopril. Blood pressure is 152/90 mm Hg in the right arm and 124/76 mm Hg in the left arm. The left radial pulse is diminished. Neurologic examination is normal. Duplex ultrasonography shows no significant carotid stenosis, retrograde flow in the left vertebral artery, and a high-grade stenosis of the proximal left subclavian artery. LDL cholesterol is 142 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Aspirin, a high-intensity statin, and smoking cessation
Angioplasty and stenting of the left subclavian artery
Carotid to subclavian artery bypass
Warfarin anticoagulation
Titrate antihypertensives to a left-arm blood pressure below 130/80 mm Hg
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Aspirin, a high-intensity statin, and smoking cessation
This man has subclavian steal physiology: a high-grade proximal left subclavian stenosis with retrograde left vertebral flow, a 28-mm Hg systolic gap between the arms, and a weak left radial pulse. Reversed vertebral flow is often found incidentally, and most such patients never develop symptoms because the circle of Willis compensates. Because he has no vertebrobasilar symptoms and no disabling arm claudication, revascularization is not indicated. He does, however, have atherosclerotic disease in a major arterial bed, which marks a high risk of myocardial infarction and stroke. Management is guideline-directed risk-factor modification: antiplatelet therapy with aspirin (or clopidogrel), a high-intensity statin, smoking cessation, diabetes control, and blood pressure treatment. Revascularization by stenting or carotid-subclavian bypass or transposition is reserved for disabling arm claudication, vertebrobasilar attacks, coronary-subclavian steal in a patient with a left internal mammary artery graft, or the need to protect inflow before planned coronary bypass or dialysis access.
B and C. Endovascular and open revascularization carry procedural risk and are not justified for an asymptomatic steal; either becomes appropriate if disabling symptoms develop. D. Warfarin has no role in atherosclerotic subclavian stenosis without another indication and adds bleeding risk. E. Blood pressure must be measured and treated using the higher-reading arm, here the right arm; titrating to the falsely low left-arm readings would leave him undertreated.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that asymptomatic subclavian steal is managed with antiplatelet therapy, statin, smoking cessation, and blood pressure control based on the higher-reading arm, with revascularization reserved for disabling symptoms.
A stenosis proximal to the left vertebral origin lets the exercising arm pull blood backward down the vertebral artery from the basilar circulation, so arm claudication comes with vertigo, syncope, diplopia or ataxia. Look for a systolic gap above 15 to 20 mmHg between the arms; revascularize only for disabling symptoms.
Question 4 · Chest pain risk stratification · medium
A 41-year-old woman comes to the emergency department because of 2 hours of intermittent left-sided chest pressure that began while she was sitting at work. The episodes last 5 to 10 minutes, are not related to exertion and have no clear trigger. She smokes half a pack of cigarettes daily and has no other medical problems; there is no family history of premature coronary disease. Pulse is 84/min and blood pressure is 128/80 mm Hg. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. A 12-lead ECG shows nonspecific T-wave flattening in lead III and is otherwise normal. High-sensitivity troponin is below the 99th percentile on arrival and again at 2 hours, without a significant change. She is now pain-free.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Discharge with outpatient follow-up
Admit for observation and exercise ECG before discharge
Coronary CT angiography before discharge
Coronary angiography within 24 hours
Admit to telemetry for 48 hours of monitoring
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: A. Discharge with outpatient follow-up
This patient's HEART score is low. History is moderately suspicious (1 point: nonexertional pressure with some anginal features), the ECG shows a nonspecific repolarization change (1), age is under 45 (0), she has one risk factor, smoking (1), and troponin is normal (0), for a total of 3. With a score of 0 to 3 and negative serial high-sensitivity troponins obtained on a validated 0/2-hour pathway, her risk of a major adverse cardiac event over the next 30 days is about 1 to 2%.
The 2021 AHA/ACC chest pain guideline classifies such patients as low risk and recommends discharge with outpatient follow-up without urgent or routine pre-discharge diagnostic testing. Testing in this group produces many false-positive results, downstream invasive procedures, radiation and cost without improving outcomes. Smoking cessation counseling and primary care follow-up are appropriate, with return precautions for recurrent or exertional symptoms.
B. Observation with a stress test before discharge is appropriate for an intermediate HEART score (4 to 6), not for a score of 3 with negative troponins. C. Coronary CT angiography is a good choice for intermediate-risk patients without known coronary disease, but routine testing adds little in low-risk patients. D. Early invasive angiography is reserved for a high HEART score (7 or more), a dynamic troponin diagnostic of NSTEMI, or ongoing ischemia. E. Prolonged telemetry monitoring is indicated for arrhythmia concerns or ongoing ACS evaluation and is unnecessary once ACS has been excluded.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that a patient with a HEART score of 0 to 3 and negative serial high-sensitivity troponins can be discharged with outpatient follow-up without routine pre-discharge stress testing.
ECG within 10 minutes and the six killers come first; serial hs-troponin and the HEART score then decide discharge (0 to 3 with negative troponins, no routine stress test), observation (4 to 6) or an early invasive strategy (7 or more).
Question 5 · Multifocal atrial tachycardia · medium
A 77-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is brought to the emergency department because of worsening dyspnea and productive cough for 3 days. Her medications are inhaled tiotropium and albuterol as needed; she does not take theophylline. She is using accessory muscles. Temperature is 37.9 C (100.2 F), pulse is 128/min and irregularly irregular, blood pressure is 142/84 mm Hg, respirations are 28/min, and oxygen saturation is 84% on room air. There are diffuse wheezes. The ECG shows an irregular narrow-complex rhythm with at least three distinct P-wave morphologies, varying PR intervals and an isoelectric baseline between P waves. Serum potassium is 3.9 mEq/L and magnesium is 1.8 mg/dL.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
Synchronized cardioversion
Controlled oxygen and treatment of the COPD exacerbation
Intravenous adenosine
Intravenous digoxin
Initiation of apixaban
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Controlled oxygen and treatment of the COPD exacerbation
The ECG shows multifocal atrial tachycardia (MAT): an irregular rhythm above 100/min with at least three P-wave morphologies, varying PR intervals and an isoelectric baseline, which distinguishes it from atrial fibrillation. MAT arises from several automatic atrial foci driven by hypoxemia, hypercapnia, acidosis, beta-agonists, theophylline and electrolyte depletion, and it occurs mainly in older patients with acute pulmonary disease, as in this COPD exacerbation.
The cornerstone of management is to treat the underlying cause: titrated (controlled) oxygen to a saturation of 88% to 92%, inhaled bronchodilators, systemic glucocorticoids, antibiotics for a likely bacterial trigger, and ventilatory support if needed. IV magnesium (useful even with a low-normal level) and potassium repletion help suppress atrial automaticity. If the rate remains fast after correction of hypoxemia, verapamil or diltiazem (or a beta-1 selective blocker if there is no active bronchospasm) can be used.
A. Synchronized cardioversion is ineffective because MAT is driven by multiple automatic foci rather than a single reentrant circuit that a shock can reset. C. Adenosine causes only transient AV block, does not terminate MAT, and can provoke bronchospasm in a patient who is already wheezing. D. Digoxin is ineffective for rate control in MAT and its toxicity is promoted by hypoxemia and hypokalemia. E. MAT itself does not carry the thromboembolic risk of AF and does not require anticoagulation.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that MAT is managed by correcting hypoxemia and treating the underlying lung disease, with magnesium and potassium repletion; cardioversion, adenosine, digoxin and anticoagulation have no role.
Read the atrial activity: sawtooth F waves (flutter), three or more distinct P waves on an isoelectric baseline (MAT) or no organized P waves (AF). MAT does not respond to cardioversion and needs no anticoagulation of its own: treat hypoxemia and the lung disease, stop theophylline, and give magnesium and potassium.
A 34-year-old man with an unrepaired large perimembranous ventricular septal defect comes to the adult congenital heart disease clinic because of worsening exertional dyspnea; he now becomes breathless walking one block. He had a loud murmur as a child but was lost to follow-up. His pulse is 84/min, blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and oxygen saturation is 82% on room air at rest. He has central cyanosis and digital clubbing. There is a right ventricular heave and a loud P2; no murmur is heard. Hemoglobin is 19.6 g/dL, ferritin is 85 ng/mL, and he has no headache or visual symptoms. Echocardiography shows a large VSD with bidirectional, predominantly right-to-left flow and RV hypertrophy. Right heart catheterization confirms systemic-level pulmonary artery pressure with markedly elevated pulmonary vascular resistance that does not respond to inhaled nitric oxide.
Which of the following is the most appropriate pharmacotherapy to improve this patient's exercise capacity?
Nifedipine
Lisinopril
Hydroxyurea
Bosentan
Warfarin
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: D. Bosentan
This man has Eisenmenger syndrome: a large unrepaired VSD caused pulmonary overcirculation that remodeled the pulmonary arterioles until pulmonary vascular resistance reached systemic levels and the shunt reversed. The clues are cyanosis, clubbing, a loud P2 with an RV heave, disappearance of the childhood murmur, secondary erythrocytosis and a fixed, nonreactive pulmonary vascular bed on catheterization. Defect closure is contraindicated. For symptomatic patients (WHO functional class II to III), the ACC/AHA adult congenital heart disease guideline recommends a pulmonary arterial hypertension-targeted therapy; the endothelin receptor antagonist bosentan is the agent with randomized evidence (BREATHE-5), improving exercise capacity and hemodynamics without worsening oxygen saturation. A phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor such as sildenafil is an alternative or add-on. Liver enzymes are monitored monthly with bosentan, and it is teratogenic, a concern largely moot here but central in women.
A. Calcium channel blockers help only the small subset of PAH patients with a positive vasoreactivity test; he had none, and systemic vasodilation increases right-to-left shunting and can cause syncope.
B. ACE inhibitors lower systemic resistance, which worsens shunt reversal and cyanosis without improving pulmonary hemodynamics.
C. Hydroxyurea is used for sickle cell disease and myeloproliferative neoplasms; erythrocytosis in Eisenmenger syndrome is a compensatory response and should not be suppressed.
E. Routine anticoagulation is not recommended in Eisenmenger syndrome because of hemoptysis and bleeding risk; it is reserved for specific indications such as atrial fibrillation or thrombus.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that symptomatic Eisenmenger syndrome is treated with PAH-targeted therapy such as bosentan, while defect closure, systemic vasodilators and routine phlebotomy are avoided.
Pulmonary pressure climbs until it exceeds systemic pressure and the shunt reverses; with a PDA the reversed flow enters beyond the arch vessels, so only the legs turn blue.
A 58-year-old man comes to the office because of chest heaviness for 3 months. The discomfort occurs when he mows his lawn or climbs stairs quickly, lasts 3 to 5 minutes, and resolves with rest; it has not changed in frequency and has never occurred at rest. He has long-standing poorly controlled hypertension and hyperlipidemia. He runs a hardware store and walks several miles a day without limitation from his joints or lungs. Blood pressure is 152/90 mm Hg and pulse is 76/min. Cardiac examination shows a sustained apical impulse and an S4. Resting ECG shows sinus rhythm with high QRS voltage and 1.5 mm of downsloping ST depression with T-wave inversion in leads V5, V6, I, and aVL. Serum troponin is within the reference range.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in diagnosis?
Exercise ECG stress test
Exercise stress echocardiography
Dobutamine stress echocardiography
Invasive coronary angiography
Serial troponin measurement
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Exercise stress echocardiography
This man has stable exertional angina (predictable, brief, relieved by rest, unchanged pattern) and needs a noninvasive test to confirm ischemia and stratify risk. Two features choose the test. First, his resting ECG is uninterpretable for ischemia: left ventricular hypertrophy with a repolarization (strain) pattern and more than 1 mm of resting ST depression means that further ST depression during exercise cannot be reliably attributed to ischemia. Other baseline abnormalities with the same implication are left bundle branch block, a paced rhythm, pre-excitation, and digoxin effect. Second, he can exercise well. When a patient can exercise but the ECG cannot be read, the recommended test is exercise with imaging, either stress echocardiography or nuclear perfusion imaging. Exercise is preferred over pharmacologic stress whenever possible because it adds prognostic information such as workload, heart rate response, and blood pressure response.
A. A plain exercise ECG relies on ST changes, which his baseline LVH with strain makes uninterpretable; a high false-positive rate would result.
C. Dobutamine stress echocardiography is reserved for patients who cannot exercise adequately; he walks miles a day.
D. Invasive angiography is appropriate after high-risk noninvasive findings or for angina refractory to medical therapy, neither of which is present yet.
E. Serial troponins are used to evaluate possible acute coronary syndrome; his pattern is stable, with no rest or crescendo symptoms, and troponin does not rise in stable angina.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that a patient with suspected stable angina who can exercise but has an uninterpretable baseline ECG (LVH with strain, resting ST depression, LBBB, paced rhythm, pre-excitation, digoxin) should have exercise stress imaging rather than an exercise ECG alone.
Rest, crescendo, or new and severe (CCS III or IV) angina is managed as ACS, not with outpatient testing. Otherwise choose the stress test by exercise ability and the resting ECG, and send high-risk results or angina refractory to maximal therapy to invasive coronary angiography.
A 38-year-old man comes to the office for a routine visit. He has had progressive weakness of his hands and difficulty letting go of objects after gripping them for several years, and he had bilateral cataract surgery at age 34. His father died suddenly at age 50. Examination shows frontal balding, temporal muscle wasting, bilateral ptosis, distal limb weakness and percussion myotonia of the thenar eminence. Pulse is 62/min and blood pressure is 122/76 mm Hg; the heart and lungs are normal on examination. Genetic testing shows an expanded CTG repeat in the DMPK gene. ECG shows sinus rhythm with a PR interval of 250 ms and a QRS duration of 128 ms with a left bundle branch block pattern. Echocardiography shows normal ventricular size and an ejection fraction of 58%.
Without further cardiac evaluation and treatment, this patient is at greatest risk for which of the following?
Aortic root dilation and dissection
Sudden death from high-grade AV block or ventricular arrhythmia
Severe left ventricular outflow tract obstruction
Constrictive pericarditis
Severe tricuspid regurgitation
Show answer and explanation
Correct answer: B. Sudden death from high-grade AV block or ventricular arrhythmia
Grip myotonia, distal weakness, early cataracts, frontal balding, temporal wasting, ptosis and a DMPK CTG expansion establish myotonic dystrophy type 1. Its main cardiac manifestation is progressive degeneration and fibrosis of the conduction system, and sudden cardiac death from complete heart block or ventricular tachyarrhythmia is a leading cause of death, often while the ejection fraction is still normal; his father's sudden death at 50 fits this. A PR interval above 240 ms and a QRS of 120 ms or more mark the highest-risk patients. Guidelines (2018 ACC/AHA/HRS bradycardia and conduction delay guideline and the 2017 ventricular arrhythmia guideline) recommend a yearly ECG for all patients, a low threshold for electrophysiologic study and permanent pacing (or an ICD when indicated) for progressive conduction disease, even before symptoms. This patient should be referred for electrophysiology evaluation now.
A is wrong because aortic root dilation and dissection are features of Marfan, Loeys-Dietz and Turner syndromes, not myotonic dystrophy. C is wrong because outflow obstruction is a feature of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, which among neuromuscular diseases is associated with Friedreich ataxia. D is wrong because pericardial constriction is unrelated to this disorder. E is wrong because tricuspid regurgitation with pulmonic stenosis is the classic lesion of carcinoid heart disease.
Educational objective: The key takeaway is that myotonic dystrophy type 1 causes progressive conduction disease with a high risk of sudden death, warranting yearly ECGs and a low threshold for pacing or an ICD.
The stem setting picks the cause of heart block: Lyme (summer, Northeast or upper Midwest) gets IV ceftriaxone and temporary pacing if admitted (oral antibiotics if mild), sarcoid (under 60, hilar nodes) gets steroids and an ICD, and established Chagas (Latin American origin) gets supportive therapy only.