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Free USMLE Step 1 Cardiovascular practice questions

10 original exam-style questions from the StepStash Step 1 qbank, each with a full explanation, an educational objective and a link to the matching study note. Try each one before you open the answer. Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy.

Open the full 2,500-question Step 1 qbank

Question 1 · Shock · easy

A 79-year-old man taking warfarin for atrial fibrillation is brought to the emergency department because of confusion and back pain 2 days after a fall at home. Temperature is 36.4 C (97.5 F), pulse is 126/min and blood pressure is 84/60 mm Hg. His skin is cool and clammy, the jugular veins are flat, and the lungs are clear. There is ecchymosis over the left flank. INR is 5.8. A pulmonary artery catheter shows the following:
Right atrial pressure1 mm Hg (2 to 6)
Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure4 mm Hg (6 to 12)
Cardiac index1.7 L/min/m2 (2.5 to 4.0)
Systemic vascular resistance1900 dyn s/cm5 (800 to 1200)
Mixed venous O2 saturation51% (65 to 75)

Which of the following is the most likely type of shock in this patient?

  1. Cardiogenic
  2. Hypovolemic
  3. Neurogenic
  4. Obstructive
  5. Septic
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Hypovolemic

The flank ecchymosis, supratherapeutic INR and back pain after a fall suggest a retroperitoneal hemorrhage, and the hemodynamic profile is classic for hypovolemic shock.

Shock is classified by three levers: preload (PCWP), cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. Reading SVR first, it is high, so this is a "cold" shock (cool, clammy skin from compensatory vasoconstriction). Within cold shock, the low PCWP and low right atrial pressure (flat neck veins, clear lungs) show an empty tank rather than a failing pump. Blood loss lowers mean systemic filling pressure and venous return, so preload and cardiac output fall. Baroreceptor unloading raises sympathetic outflow, producing tachycardia and arteriolar constriction that raise SVR. Low flow makes tissues extract more O2, so mixed venous saturation falls.

A. Cardiogenic shock also has low output, high SVR and low mixed venous saturation, but the failing pump causes a high PCWP with pulmonary congestion.

C. Neurogenic shock (for example, after spinal cord injury from a fall) loses sympathetic tone, so SVR is low and the patient is warm and bradycardic, not cold and tachycardic.

D. Obstructive shock from tamponade or tension pneumothorax raises right atrial pressure and distends the neck veins; tamponade also equalizes diastolic pressures and raises PCWP.

E. Septic shock is a distributive, "warm" shock with low SVR, often high cardiac output early, and a high mixed venous saturation from impaired extraction.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that hypovolemic shock shows low PCWP, low cardiac output and high SVR, and PCWP is what separates it from cardiogenic shock.
Decision tree: cold shock (high SVR) branches by PCWP into hypovolemic (low) and cardiogenic (high) shock, with obstructive shock identified by a mechanical block; warm shock (low SVR) is distributive. Each leaf shows PCWP, CO and SVR chips with the lever that fails first in rose.
Read SVR first (cold vs warm shock), then PCWP within cold shock; the rose chip marks the lever that fails first, and the other two follow or compensate.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 2 · Lipid-Lowering Agents · easy

A 49-year-old man with hypertension and a 10-year atherosclerotic cardiovascular risk of 12% has an LDL cholesterol of 178 mg/dL. He is started on atorvastatin 40 mg daily. Eight weeks later his LDL cholesterol is 88 mg/dL, his triglycerides have fallen slightly, and his HDL cholesterol has risen slightly. His creatine kinase and transaminase levels are normal.

The fall in his plasma LDL cholesterol is most directly due to which of the following?

  1. Decreased hepatic VLDL assembly from impaired apolipoprotein B lipidation
  2. Increased endothelial lipoprotein lipase activity
  3. Decreased hepatic PCSK9 synthesis
  4. Increased hepatic LDL receptor expression
  5. Decreased intestinal cholesterol absorption
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Increased hepatic LDL receptor expression

Statins competitively inhibit HMG-CoA reductase, the rate-limiting enzyme that converts HMG-CoA to mevalonate. The resulting fall in hepatocyte cholesterol is sensed in the endoplasmic reticulum, and the sterol-sensing transcription factor SREBP-2 is transported to the Golgi, cleaved, and moves to the nucleus. There it increases transcription of the LDL receptor gene. More receptors on the hepatocyte surface take up circulating LDL, which is why statins lower LDL by 20% to 60%, more than any other oral class, and reduce cardiovascular and all-cause mortality. The modest fall in triglycerides and rise in HDL are minor effects.

A. Decreased VLDL assembly from impaired apoB lipidation describes lomitapide, which inhibits microsomal triglyceride transfer protein and lowers LDL without LDL receptors. B. Increased lipoprotein lipase activity is the main action of fibrates, which mostly lower triglycerides. C. Decreased PCSK9 synthesis is the opposite of what statins do: SREBP-2 also drives PCSK9 transcription, so statins raise PCSK9 and partly blunt their own effect, which is why adding a PCSK9 inhibitor is synergistic. E. Decreased intestinal cholesterol absorption is the effect of ezetimibe through NPC1L1 blockade; statins act on synthesis, not absorption.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that statins lower LDL mainly by depleting hepatocyte cholesterol, which activates SREBP-2 and upregulates hepatic LDL receptors.
Schematic with blood above a hepatocyte and the intestine below: statins and bempedoic acid block cholesterol synthesis, ezetimibe blocks NPC1L1 uptake, and bile acid resins trap bile acids in the gut so fewer are reabsorbed and the liver converts more cholesterol into bile acids by 7α-hydroxylase; the hepatocyte cholesterol pool falls and SREBP-2 makes more LDL receptors; PCSK9 inhibitors stop PCSK9 sending receptors to the lysosome, and lomitapide works without receptors.
Statins, bempedoic acid, ezetimibe and bile acid resins drain hepatocyte cholesterol so SREBP-2 makes more LDL receptors; PCSK9 inhibitors keep receptors from being destroyed; lomitapide bypasses the receptor.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 3 · Cardiac and Vascular Function Curves · easy

In a study of healthy volunteers, an investigational drug is infused that increases myocardial contractility. At the dose used, it does not change heart rate, blood volume, venous tone or systemic vascular resistance. Cardiac output and right atrial pressure are measured before and 30 minutes after the start of the infusion.

Which of the following sets of changes is most likely observed after the infusion?

  1. Increased cardiac output and increased right atrial pressure
  2. Increased cardiac output and decreased right atrial pressure
  3. Decreased cardiac output and increased right atrial pressure
  4. Decreased cardiac output and decreased right atrial pressure
  5. Increased cardiac output and unchanged right atrial pressure
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: B. Increased cardiac output and decreased right atrial pressure

A pure positive inotrope lifts the cardiac function (Frank-Starling) curve: at any given right atrial pressure (preload), the ventricle ejects more blood. Because the drug does not change blood volume, venous tone or arteriolar resistance, the venous return curve stays where it is (same MSFP, same slope).

The new steady state is where the higher cardiac curve crosses the unchanged venous return curve. Moving up along a venous return line means moving to the left, so the new point has a higher cardiac output and a lower right atrial pressure. Physiologically, the stronger ventricle empties more completely, draws blood out of the right atrium and lowers RAP, which widens the gradient (MSFP minus RAP) that drives venous return. The rule of thumb: inotropy moves CO and RAP in opposite directions. Clinical examples include sympathetic beta1 stimulation, dobutamine and digoxin.

A. A rise in both CO and RAP is the signature of a volume load or venoconstriction (parallel right shift of the venous return curve). C. A fall in CO with a rise in RAP is negative inotropy, as in systolic heart failure or beta-blockade. D. A fall in both is hemorrhage, dehydration or venodilation (parallel left shift). E. A rise in CO with RAP about unchanged is the pattern of a fall in TPR, which rotates the venous return curve and also lifts the cardiac curve by lowering afterload; the stem rules out any change in vascular resistance.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that a positive inotrope lifts the cardiac function curve along a fixed venous return curve, so cardiac output rises while right atrial pressure falls.
Four small graphs of cardiac output or venous return against right atrial pressure: normally the curves cross at about 5 L/min with the venous curve meeting the x-axis at a mean systemic filling pressure of about 7 mmHg; more volume or venoconstriction shifts the venous curve right so CO and RAP both rise; lower TPR rotates the venous curve steeper around the same MSFP and lifts the cardiac curve so CO rises with RAP about unchanged; a positive inotrope lifts the cardiac curve so CO rises and RAP falls.
Volume shifts the venous curve (CO and RAP move together), TPR rotates it (CO changes, RAP about constant), and contractility lifts the cardiac curve (CO and RAP move opposite ways).

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 4 · Vascular Malformations · medium

A full-term newborn boy has a flat, sharply demarcated, pink-purple patch covering most of his right cheek and upper lip. It was visible at delivery, does not rise above the skin, and partially blanches with pressure. The forehead and eyelids are spared. Eye examination and neurologic examination are normal. His parents ask what will happen to the mark if it is left alone.

Which of the following is the most likely natural history of this lesion?

  1. Persistence, growth in proportion to the child, and gradual darkening
  2. Rapid growth over several months followed by slow involution
  3. Spontaneous fading within the first 1 to 2 years of life
  4. Repeated ulceration and bleeding with trivial contact during infancy
  5. Transformation into a malignant endothelial tumor in adulthood
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Persistence, growth in proportion to the child, and gradual darkening

A flat pink-purple patch that is fully present at birth and unilateral on the face is a port-wine stain (nevus flammeus), a capillary malformation. Most carry a somatic activating GNAQ mutation. The key biologic distinction is between vascular tumors and vascular malformations. Malformations are errors in forming vessels: they are present at birth, have no proliferative phase, grow only in proportion to the child, and never involute. Over decades a port-wine stain typically darkens and thickens, and it may become nodular. Pulsed-dye laser can lighten it. A lesion in the ophthalmic (V1) distribution would raise concern for Sturge-Weber syndrome with an ipsilateral leptomeningeal malformation and glaucoma; this lesion spares the forehead and eyelids.

B describes infantile hemangioma, a true endothelial tumor (GLUT1-positive) that is absent or faint at birth, proliferates for 3 to 5 months and then involutes over years. C describes the midline salmon patch (stork bite) on the nape or glabella, which usually fades. D is typical of pyogenic granuloma, a friable lobular capillary hemangioma. E is wrong because port-wine stains are not premalignant; angiosarcoma arises in sun-damaged scalp, irradiated skin, lymphedematous limbs or the liver.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that vascular malformations such as port-wine stains are present at birth, grow with the child and never regress, whereas infantile hemangiomas proliferate and then involute.
Schematic growth curves on an age axis: an infantile hemangioma is absent or faint at birth, appears in the first weeks, proliferates for about 3 to 5 months and involutes slowly over years, while a vascular malformation is present at birth and grows in proportion to the child without regressing; cards list examples of each group, with infantile hemangioma GLUT1 positive and malformations GLUT1 negative, and a footnote that CD31 stains both.
Tumors proliferate and infantile hemangiomas involute; malformations are present at birth, grow with the child and never regress. GLUT1 marks infantile hemangioma but not malformations; CD31 stains both.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 5 · QT Prolongation and Torsades · medium

A 46-year-old woman on methadone maintenance (160 mg daily) for opioid use disorder is admitted with 3 days of vomiting and diarrhea from viral gastroenteritis. She receives repeated doses of intravenous ondansetron. Serum potassium is 2.9 mEq/L and magnesium is 1.3 mg/dL. Her ECG shows sinus bradycardia at 52/min with a QTc of 590 msec. Several hours later she becomes unresponsive, and the monitor shows a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia whose QRS complexes appear to twist around the baseline, beginning after a long pause.

Which of the following electrophysiologic events most directly initiated this arrhythmia?

  1. Delayed afterdepolarizations from intracellular calcium overload after full repolarization
  2. Reentry through an accessory atrioventricular pathway
  3. Enhanced phase 4 automaticity of sinoatrial node cells
  4. Early afterdepolarizations from L-type calcium channel reactivation during prolonged repolarization
  5. Slowed phase 0 conduction from fast sodium channel blockade
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Early afterdepolarizations from L-type calcium channel reactivation during prolonged repolarization

This patient has drug-induced long QT with torsades de pointes. High-dose methadone and ondansetron both block the rapid delayed-rectifier potassium current (IKr, the hERG channel), and her risk is multiplied by hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia from gastroenteritis, bradycardia and female sex.

With IKr blocked, phase 3 repolarization slows and the ventricular action potential lengthens, seen as a long QT. During this prolonged plateau (phase 2) and early phase 3, L-type calcium channels recover from inactivation and reopen, producing an inward current that depolarizes the membrane before repolarization is complete. These early afterdepolarizations (EADs), which are favored by slow heart rates and long pauses, can reach threshold and fire premature beats; because repolarization is uneven across the myocardium, the beats propagate as a polymorphic VT whose axis twists around the baseline. Treatment is IV magnesium sulfate even with normal serum magnesium, potassium repletion, stopping the QT drugs, and pacing or isoproterenol for pause-dependent recurrences.

A, delayed afterdepolarizations, occur after repolarization is complete and are caused by calcium overload of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, as in digoxin toxicity; they produce bidirectional VT or atrial tachycardia with block. B, accessory pathway reentry, causes orthodromic or antidromic reentrant tachycardia in Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. C is wrong because she is bradycardic, and increased sinus automaticity produces sinus tachycardia, not polymorphic VT. E, fast sodium channel blockade (class IC drugs, tricyclic overdose), widens the QRS complex and promotes monomorphic VT rather than lengthening the QT.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that IKr-blocking drugs prolong repolarization, allowing L-type calcium channels to reactivate during the plateau and early phase 3 and generate early afterdepolarizations that trigger torsades de pointes, especially with bradycardia, pauses, hypokalemia and hypomagnesemia.
A ventricular action potential with IKr blocked shows a slower phase 3 and an early afterdepolarization compared with normal, aligned with an ECG whose long QT interval leads into torsades de pointes; boxes list IKr-blocking drug families, risk amplifiers and treatment.
IKr (hERG) block lengthens phase 3 and the QT interval; an early afterdepolarization triggers torsades, treated first with IV magnesium.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 6 · Cardiac Tamponade · medium

A 71-year-old man is admitted 4 days after a late-presenting inferolateral myocardial infarction that was not reperfused. He suddenly becomes confused and pale. Blood pressure is 72/48 mm Hg and pulse is 124/min. The jugular veins are distended to the angle of the jaw, and heart sounds are faint. Bedside echocardiography shows a pericardial collection with echogenic material, estimated at about 200 mL, with diastolic collapse of the right atrium and right ventricle. Hemoglobin is unchanged from admission.

Which of the following best explains why hemodynamic collapse occurred with this relatively small collection?

  1. Rapid accumulation that exceeded the ability of the pericardium to stretch
  2. Reduced compliance of a thickened, fibrotic pericardium
  3. Greater viscosity of blood compared with serous effusion fluid
  4. Loss of left ventricular contractility from infarct expansion
  5. Hypovolemia from concealed gastrointestinal blood loss
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Rapid accumulation that exceeded the ability of the pericardium to stretch

This man has cardiac tamponade from rupture of the left ventricular free wall, a complication 3 to 14 days after a transmural infarct, presenting with Beck triad (hypotension, distended neck veins, muffled heart sounds), tachycardia, and right-sided chamber collapse. The pericardial pressure-volume curve is flat at first and then turns nearly vertical. The fibrous pericardium stretches only slowly, so when fluid accumulates over weeks the sac can accommodate more than 1 L at modest pressure. When blood enters suddenly, the pericardium has no time to stretch, and as little as 150 to 200 mL drives intrapericardial pressure above the filling pressures of the thin-walled right heart chambers. Diastolic filling, stroke volume, and blood pressure then fall, producing obstructive shock. For the same reason, removing a small volume by drainage can be lifesaving.

B. A thickened, fibrotic pericardium causes constrictive pericarditis, a chronic process; a pericardium 4 days after an MI is not fibrotic. C. The viscosity of the fluid does not determine intrapericardial pressure; volume and rate of accumulation relative to compliance do. D. Infarct-related pump failure causes cardiogenic shock with pulmonary edema, not chamber collapse on echo. E. Hypovolemia would produce flat neck veins and a falling hemoglobin, not distended jugular veins.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that tamponade depends on the rate of accumulation: a sudden 150 to 200 mL collection can tamponade because the pericardium cannot stretch quickly.
Left, a pericardial pressure-volume graph: the curve for sudden accumulation turns almost vertical after 150 to 200 mL and crosses the chamber filling pressure line, while the slow-effusion curve stays flat past 1 L; right, short-axis hearts in a fixed sac show the septum bowing into the left ventricle on inspiration, and an arterial tracing shows systolic pressure falling more than 10 mmHg during inspiration; bottom boxes list the signs of tamponade and what helps or harms.
The pericardial pressure-volume curve turns nearly vertical, so speed of accumulation matters more than volume; inspiration then pushes the septum into the LV, causing pulsus paradoxus. Drain the fluid and support preload.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 7 · Antiplatelet Agents · medium

A 61-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with crushing chest pain. Three weeks ago he had a drug-eluting stent placed in the left anterior descending artery and was discharged on aspirin and clopidogrel, which pill counts confirm he has taken daily. ECG shows ST elevation in leads V1 to V4, and angiography shows thrombotic occlusion of the stent. Pharmacogenetic testing shows that he is homozygous for a loss-of-function CYP2C19 allele.

Which of the following steps in this patient's antiplatelet therapy was most likely impaired?

  1. Hepatic oxidation of a prodrug to its active metabolite
  2. Irreversible acetylation of platelet cyclooxygenase-1
  3. Binding of the drug to platelet glycoprotein IIb/IIIa
  4. Inhibition of platelet phosphodiesterase 3
  5. Renal elimination of the active drug
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Hepatic oxidation of a prodrug to its active metabolite

Clopidogrel is a thienopyridine prodrug. It must be oxidized by hepatic cytochrome P450 enzymes, chiefly CYP2C19, into an active thiol metabolite that irreversibly blocks the platelet P2Y12 ADP receptor. ADP acting on P2Y12 normally amplifies activation of GPIIb/IIIa, so blocking it reduces platelet aggregation, and with aspirin it forms dual antiplatelet therapy after stenting. Patients who carry two loss-of-function CYP2C19 alleles (poor metabolizers) generate little active drug, have higher on-treatment platelet reactivity, and have more stent thrombosis. Inhibitors of CYP2C19, such as omeprazole, have a similar but smaller effect. Ticagrelor (active without conversion and reversible) or prasugrel (little CYP2C19 dependence) are alternatives in such patients.

B. Acetylation of COX-1 is aspirin's action; aspirin is not a prodrug requiring CYP2C19, so this genotype does not affect it. C. Binding to GPIIb/IIIa describes the IV agents abciximab, eptifibatide and tirofiban, which he was not taking. D. PDE3 inhibition describes cilostazol, used for claudication. E. Impaired renal elimination would raise drug levels and cause bleeding rather than thrombosis, and it is unrelated to CYP2C19.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that clopidogrel is a prodrug activated by CYP2C19 into an irreversible P2Y12 blocker, so poor metabolizers get little antiplatelet effect and more stent thrombosis.
Flow diagram in which arachidonic acid to TXA2 via COX-1, ADP via P2Y12 and thrombin via PAR-1 converge on GPIIb/IIIa, with cAMP as a brake, and GPIIb/IIIa binds fibrinogen to bridge two platelets; drug chips show aspirin on COX-1, the P2Y12 blockers, vorapaxar on PAR-1, cilostazol and dipyridamole raising cAMP, and abciximab, eptifibatide and tirofiban on GPIIb/IIIa.
TXA2, ADP and thrombin all converge on GPIIb/IIIa, and each antiplatelet class cuts one input, raises cAMP to strengthen the brake, or blocks fibrinogen binding at the final step.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 8 · COX Inhibitors · medium

A 68-year-old man with hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus and knee osteoarthritis is brought to the emergency department because of crushing substernal chest pain for 1 hour. Two years ago he had an upper gastrointestinal bleed from a gastric ulcer while taking naproxen, and 8 months ago he was switched to a different oral anti-inflammatory drug that has controlled his knee pain without dyspepsia. He takes no aspirin. An ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III and aVF. Coronary angiography shows an occlusive thrombus in the right coronary artery.

Which of the following best explains how his anti-inflammatory drug contributed to this event?

  1. Reduced endothelial prostacyclin with intact platelet thromboxane A2
  2. Irreversible acetylation of cyclooxygenase-1 in platelets
  3. Reduced hepatic synthesis of antithrombin III and protein C
  4. Increased leukotriene synthesis from shunted arachidonic acid
  5. Inhibition of lipocortin-mediated suppression of phospholipase A2
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: A. Reduced endothelial prostacyclin with intact platelet thromboxane A2

A patient with a prior NSAID ulcer who was switched to an anti-inflammatory drug that relieves arthritis pain without GI symptoms is taking celecoxib, a selective COX-2 inhibitor. Sparing COX-1 preserves gastric prostaglandins that maintain mucus, bicarbonate and mucosal blood flow, so ulcer risk falls.

The same selectivity explains the thrombotic risk. In vascular endothelium, COX-2 is a major source of prostacyclin (PGI2), which raises platelet cAMP, inhibits aggregation and causes vasodilation. Platelets express only COX-1, which makes thromboxane A2, a promoter of aggregation and vasoconstriction. Celecoxib lowers PGI2 but leaves platelet TXA2 untouched, tilting the balance toward thrombosis and increasing the risk of myocardial infarction and stroke, especially in patients with cardiovascular risk factors such as this one. It also has no antiplatelet effect of its own, and its sulfonamide group is a caution in sulfa allergy.

B. Irreversible acetylation of platelet COX-1 is aspirin's mechanism; it reduces thromboxane for the 7 to 10 day platelet lifespan and is antithrombotic, not prothrombotic.

C. Reduced antithrombin is a feature of nephrotic syndrome, liver disease and estrogen therapy, not COX inhibition.

D. Shunting of arachidonic acid to the lipoxygenase pathway explains aspirin-exacerbated respiratory disease (bronchospasm and nasal polyps), not coronary thrombosis.

E. Lipocortin (annexin A1) induction is how glucocorticoids inhibit phospholipase A2; celecoxib acts downstream at COX and does not inhibit lipocortin.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that selective COX-2 inhibitors spare gastric mucosa but reduce endothelial prostacyclin while platelet thromboxane A2 persists, increasing thrombotic cardiovascular risk.
Rows for inflamed tissue, stomach, kidney, blood vessel and acetaminophen showing which COX product each loses and the resulting effect: anti-inflammatory benefit, ulcers, reduced GFR, aspirin antiplatelet effect or celecoxib thrombosis.
COX-1 loss costs the stomach (ulcers) and platelets (aspirin antiplatelet effect for 7 to 10 days); NSAIDs also constrict the afferent arteriole (AKI); sparing COX-1 while cutting endothelial PGI2 makes celecoxib prothrombotic.

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Question 9 · Heart failure pharmacology · hard

In an early-phase study, 40 adults with essential hypertension receive an investigational oral drug for 2 weeks. Its active metabolite inhibits a zinc-dependent membrane endopeptidase found on renal proximal tubule brush border and vascular endothelium. Plasma atrial natriuretic peptide doubles, and urinary sodium and cGMP excretion increase. Despite this, mean arterial pressure falls by only 1 mm Hg. When losartan is added in a second phase of the study, blood pressure falls substantially.

Which of the following best explains the minimal antihypertensive effect of the investigational drug given alone?

  1. Downregulation of natriuretic peptide receptor A
  2. Accelerated clearance of ANP by natriuretic peptide receptor C
  3. Suppression of renin release by natriuretic peptides
  4. Reduced degradation of angiotensin II
  5. Increased degradation of bradykinin
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: D. Reduced degradation of angiotensin II

The drug is a neprilysin inhibitor (like sacubitril or the older agent candoxatril). Neprilysin is a membrane zinc metalloendopeptidase that degrades ANP, BNP, bradykinin and substance P, so blocking it raises natriuretic peptides, which act on particulate guanylate cyclase receptors to raise cGMP and cause natriuresis and vasodilation. The rise in urinary sodium and cGMP shows that this arm of the response is working.

However, neprilysin also breaks down angiotensin II. Inhibiting it alone therefore lets angiotensin II accumulate, and AT1 receptor mediated vasoconstriction, aldosterone release and sodium retention offset the natriuretic peptide benefit, leaving blood pressure nearly unchanged. Blocking the AT1 receptor with an ARB unmasks the vasodilator effect, which is why sacubitril is marketed only in combination with valsartan. An ACE inhibitor is not used as the partner because ACE and neprilysin both degrade bradykinin, and dual inhibition causes angioedema.

A. Downregulation of natriuretic peptide receptor A would blunt the cGMP response, but urinary cGMP rose. B. Faster clearance by natriuretic peptide receptor C would lower ANP, yet plasma ANP doubled. C. Natriuretic peptides do suppress renin release, but that would lower blood pressure further rather than oppose the drug. E. Neprilysin inhibition decreases, not increases, bradykinin degradation, and the resulting bradykinin excess is vasodilatory.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that neprilysin degrades angiotensin II as well as natriuretic peptides, so a neprilysin inhibitor raises angiotensin II and must be paired with an AT1 receptor blocker such as valsartan.
Flow diagram: sacubitril, a prodrug converted to LBQ657, blocks neprilysin, which degrades ANP, BNP, bradykinin, substance P and angiotensin II; arrows lead to three consequences: higher ANP and BNP raise cGMP and give the benefit, higher angiotensin II is neutralized by valsartan at the AT1 receptor, and higher bradykinin means an ACE inhibitor must be stopped 36 hours before; a bottom box covers BNP versus NT-proBNP monitoring and the contraindications.
Blocking neprilysin raises natriuretic peptides (the benefit) but also angiotensin II (neutralized by valsartan) and bradykinin (so never with an ACE inhibitor). BNP rises on therapy, so follow NT-proBNP.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

Question 10 · Carcinoid Heart Disease · hard

A 63-year-old man comes to the physician because of episodic facial flushing, watery diarrhea and increasing leg swelling for 1 year. Jugular venous pressure is elevated with prominent v waves. A holosystolic murmur at the left lower sternal border increases with inspiration, and the liver is enlarged and pulsatile. CT of the abdomen shows a mass in the terminal ileum and multiple hepatic masses. A 24-hour urine 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid level is markedly elevated. Echocardiography shows thickened, retracted, immobile tricuspid and pulmonic leaflets. The mitral and aortic valves are normal, and there is no intracardiac shunt.

Which of the following best explains the normal appearance of this patient's left-sided valves?

  1. Hepatic monoamine oxidase inactivates serotonin before it reaches the heart
  2. Left-sided valve leaflets lack 5-HT2B receptors
  3. Pulmonary monoamine oxidase inactivates serotonin before it reaches the left heart
  4. Pulmonary angiotensin-converting enzyme degrades bradykinin released by the tumor
  5. Higher left-sided pressures prevent fibrous plaque deposition
Show answer and explanation

Correct answer: C. Pulmonary monoamine oxidase inactivates serotonin before it reaches the left heart

This man has carcinoid syndrome from a midgut (ileal) neuroendocrine tumor with hepatic metastases, and right-sided carcinoid heart disease (tricuspid regurgitation with large v waves and a pulsatile liver, plus pulmonic stenosis).

Serotonin from the primary tumor normally enters portal blood and is inactivated by hepatic monoamine oxidase on first pass, so a gut tumor alone rarely causes symptoms. Liver metastases drain directly into the hepatic veins and IVC, delivering serotonin, tachykinins and bradykinin to the right heart. Serotonin acting on 5-HT2B receptors stimulates myofibroblast proliferation, producing pearly-white plaques that thicken and fix the tricuspid and pulmonic leaflets. Blood then passes through the lungs, where pulmonary monoamine oxidase degrades serotonin to 5-HIAA, so the left heart is protected. Left-sided lesions appear only when serotonin bypasses the lungs: a PFO or ASD with right-to-left flow, a bronchial carcinoid draining into the pulmonary veins, or a very high hormone burden.

A. Hepatic first-pass metabolism explains why gut tumors without liver metastases spare the heart, but this patient's metastases bypass that barrier, so it cannot explain left-sided sparing.

B. Left-sided valves do express 5-HT2B receptors; fenfluramine and pergolide, which circulate freely, cause mitral and aortic regurgitation through them.

D. Pulmonary ACE does degrade bradykinin, but bradykinin causes flushing, not the fibrotic valve plaques, which are driven by serotonin.

E. Pressure does not prevent plaques; serotonergic drugs damage left-sided valves despite systemic pressures.

Educational objective: The key takeaway is that carcinoid heart disease requires hepatic metastases and is right-sided because pulmonary monoamine oxidase inactivates serotonin before it reaches the left heart.
Two-route diagram of carcinoid serotonin: from a gut tumor alone it is inactivated by liver MAO on first pass and the heart is spared; from liver metastases it drains through the hepatic veins and IVC to the right heart, causing tricuspid regurgitation and pulmonic stenosis, while lung MAO spares the left heart unless a PFO or ASD, a bronchial carcinoid or a very high hormone burden bypasses the lungs; a bottom panel adds the lesion, the look-alike 5-HT2B drug valvulopathy, and confirmation by 24-hour urine 5-HIAA with octreotide and replacement of severely damaged valves.
Liver metastases let serotonin reach the right heart (tricuspid regurgitation, pulmonic stenosis); lung MAO shields the left side unless serotonin bypasses the lungs.

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Reviewed by Veli Bakalov, MD · @HemeOncBuddy

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